Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 30.06.2025 06:27
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
How do you handle your mother-in-law after you heard her talking badly about you in the next room?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
How do you take your erotic photos and how do you choose the poses?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What is the most overrated pleasure? Why?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.